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Blog Quizzes Top DevOps MCQs (Quiz) With Answers

Top DevOps MCQs (Quiz) With Answers

By: Shashi

Last Updated: October 5th, 2026

Read Time: 15:00 Minutes

1. Top DevOps MCQs

2. Your Quiz Result

Preparing for your next DevOps interview? This DevOps MCQ list is your ultimate resource. It features the most frequently asked DevOps multiple-choice questions to help you assess your skills and identify areas for improvement.

Note: Score 60% or higher to unlock an exclusive offer of up to 50% off on all self-paced courses.

Let's Begin!

Top DevOps MCQs

1. What does DevOps stand for?

A) Development and Operations
B) Development, Operations, and Software
C) Deploying Operations Systems
D) Digital Operations Strategy

2. What is the primary goal of DevOps?

A) To improve collaboration between development and operations teams
B) To reduce the number of developers
C) To automate only testing processes
D) To focus solely on hardware management

3. Which of the following is a key principle of DevOps?

A) Siloed teams
B) Continuous improvement
C) Manual deployments only
D) Avoiding automation

4. What does CI/CD stand for in DevOps?

A) Continuous Integration/Continuous Delivery
B) Code Integration/Code Deployment
C) Continuous Integration/Continuous Deployment
D) Continuous Improvement/Continuous Development

5. Which tool is commonly used for version control in DevOps?

A) Git
B) Jenkins
C) Docker
D) Kubernetes

6. What is Infrastructure as Code (IaC)?

A) Writing code for hardware
B) Managing infrastructure through code and automation
C) Manual configuration of servers
D) Only for cloud environments

7. Which tool is primarily used for Continuous Integration?

A) Docker
B) Ansible
C) Terraform
D) Jenkins

8. What is a container in DevOps?

A) A virtual machine
B) A type of cloud service
C) A lightweight, portable unit for running applications
D) A database storage unit

9. Which tool is used for containerization?

A) Kubernetes
B) Docker
C) Git
D) Puppet

10. What is Kubernetes primarily used for?

A) Container orchestration
B) Version control
C) Configuration management
D) Monitoring

11. What is Ansible used for in DevOps?

A) Container building
B) CI/CD pipelines
C) Configuration management and automation
D) Load balancing

12. What does the command 'docker build' do?

A) Runs a container
B) Builds a Docker image
C) Pushes an image to a registry
D) Stops a container

13. Which tool is used for infrastructure provisioning?

A) Jenkins
B) Git
C) Docker
D) Terraform

14. What is blue-green deployment?

A) A strategy for zero-downtime deployments
B) A color-coding system for servers
C) A testing environment setup
D) A monitoring tool

15. What is Prometheus used for?

A) Configuration management
B) Containerization
C) Monitoring and alerting
D) Version control

16. What is the difference between Continuous Delivery and Continuous Deployment?

A) They are the same
B) Continuous Delivery requires manual approval, while Deployment is automatic
C) Delivery is for testing, Deployment for production
D) No difference in automation

17. What is a Dockerfile?

A) A script to build Docker images
B) A configuration file for Kubernetes
C) A YAML file for Ansible
D) A Jenkins pipeline script

18. Which of the following is a configuration management tool?

A) Jenkins
B) Docker
C) Chef
D) Prometheus

19. What is GitOps?

A) Using Git for operations only
B) A methodology using Git for declarative infrastructure and applications
C) A branching strategy in Git
D) A monitoring tool

20. What is the purpose of a CI/CD pipeline?

A) To manually test code
B) To store code versions
C) To provision hardware
D) To automate build, test, and deployment

21. Which protocol is commonly used for secure communication in DevOps tools?

A) SSH
B) HTTP
C) FTP
D) Telnet

22. What is Helm in Kubernetes?

A) A container runtime
B) A load balancer
C) A package manager
D) A monitoring tool

23. What is the role of ELK stack in DevOps?

A) Continuous integration
B) Log management and analysis
C) Infrastructure provisioning
D) Container orchestration

24. What is a Pod in Kubernetes?

A) The smallest deployable unit
B) A type of service
C) A namespace
D) A volume

25. Which tool is used for secrets management?

A) Jenkins
B) Docker
C) Vault
D) Git

26. What is canary deployment?

A) Full deployment to all users
B) Gradual rollout to a subset of users
C) Backup deployment strategy
D) Manual rollback process

27. What is the function of Nagios?

A) Build automation
B) Code deployment
C) Container management
D) System monitoring

28. What is microservices architecture?

A) Breaking applications into small, independent services
B) A single monolithic application
C) Hardware-based services
D) Database services only

29. Which cloud provider is commonly used in DevOps?

A) All of the above
B) Microsoft Azure
C) AWS
D) Google Cloud

30. What is Puppet used for?

A) Container orchestration
B) Configuration management
C) Monitoring
D) CI/CD

31. What is the 'shift-left' approach in DevOps?

A) Integrating security early in the development cycle
B) Moving operations to the left side of the pipeline
C) Delaying testing
D) Focusing on deployment only

32. What is Jenkinsfile?

A) A Docker configuration
B) A Kubernetes manifest
C) A script defining a Jenkins pipeline
D) A Git hook

33. What is observability in DevOps?

A) Only logging
B) Understanding system internals through metrics, logs, and traces
C) Deployment strategy
D) Version control

34. Which command stops a Docker container?

A) docker run
B) docker build
C) docker ps
D) docker stop

35. What is Terraform's main language?

A) HCL
B) YAML
C) JSON
D) Python

36. What is a Service in Kubernetes?

A) A storage volume
B) A deployment unit
C) An abstraction for accessing Pods
D) A config map

37. What is the purpose of Grafana?

A) Build automation
B) Visualization of metrics
C) Code repository
D) Container registry

38. What is idempotency in configuration management?

A) Applying the same configuration multiple times yields the same result
B) Only one-time application
C) Random results
D) Error-prone execution

39. What is SonarQube used for?

A) Deployment
B) Monitoring
C) Code quality analysis
D) Logging

40. What is a ReplicaSet in Kubernetes?

A) A single pod
B) Ensures a specified number of pod replicas
C) A network policy
D) A persistent volume

41. What is the command to push a Docker image to a registry?

A) docker run
B) docker build
C) docker pull
D) docker push

42. What is Chaos Engineering?

A) Intentionally introducing failures to test resilience
B) Fixing bugs in production
C) Automating tests only
D) Monitoring tools

43. What is Splunk used for?

A) CI/CD
B) Containerization
C) Log analysis and SIEM
D) IaC

44. What is the purpose of a webhook in DevOps?

A) To store secrets
B) To trigger actions on events, like CI builds
C) To manage users
D) To provision resources

45. What is serverless architecture?

A) Running code without managing servers
B) Using physical servers only
C) Manual scaling
D) Database-focused

46. What is ArgoCD?

A) A CI tool
B) A monitoring dashboard
C) A GitOps continuous delivery tool for Kubernetes
D) A container builder

47. What is the role of Istio in DevOps?

A) Version control
B) Service mesh for microservices
C) Log aggregation
D) Build automation

48. What is a ConfigMap in Kubernetes?

A) A secret storage
B) A pod template
C) A network rule
D) Non-sensitive configuration data

49. What is the benefit of using immutable infrastructure?

A) Predictable and reproducible environments
B) Easy to modify at runtime
C) Reduces automation
D) Increases manual intervention

50. What is DevSecOps?

A) Development and security only
B) Operations without security
C) Integrating security into DevOps practices
D) Separate security team

51. Which Kubernetes object manages stateless applications?

A) StatefulSet
B) Deployment
C) DaemonSet
D) ConfigMap

52. What is the purpose of a Kubernetes DaemonSet?

A) Store secrets
B) Manage deployments
C) Run a pod on every node
D) Load balancing

53. Which Git command creates a new branch?

A) git branch
B) git merge
C) git clone
D) git stash

54. What is the purpose of AWS CloudFormation?

A) Monitoring
B) CI/CD
C) Logging
D) Infrastructure as Code

55. What is the primary purpose of Docker Compose?

A) Monitor containers
B) Define and run multi-container applications
C) Build images
D) Manage Git repositories

56. Which command displays running Docker containers?

A) docker ps
B) docker logs
C) docker exec
D) docker cp

57. What is the purpose of Kubernetes Ingress?

A) Storage management
B) Secret management
C) External access to services
D) Container runtime

58. Which tool is commonly used for artifact repository management?

A) Prometheus
B) Nexus
C) Grafana
D) Ansible

59. What is the purpose of Kubernetes StatefulSet?

A) Monitoring
B) Logging
C) Stateless applications
D) Managing stateful applications

60. Which practice helps detect issues earlier in software delivery?

A) Continuous Testing
B) Manual Deployment
C) Delayed Feedback
D) Waterfall Release

61. What is an API Gateway?

A) Database connector
B) Entry point for managing APIs
C) CI server
D) Version control tool

62. Which AWS service provides serverless computing?

A) EC2
B) EKS
C) Lambda
D) RDS

63. What is the purpose of load balancing?

A) Distribute traffic across resources
B) Store logs
C) Manage source code
D) Create containers

64. Which Kubernetes object stores sensitive information?

A) ConfigMap
B) Service
C) Deployment
D) Secret

65. What is a rollback in deployment?

A) Creating backups
B) Reverting to a previous stable version
C) Deleting logs
D) Scaling resources

66. Which tool is widely used for source code hosting?

A) Grafana
B) Prometheus
C) GitHub
D) Terraform

67. What is Horizontal Pod Autoscaler (HPA)?

A) Automatically scales pods based on metrics
B) Stores secrets
C) Manages networking
D) Controls storage

68. Which file format is commonly used for Kubernetes manifests?

A) XML
B) YAML
C) CSV
D) TXT

69. What is the purpose of CI in CI/CD?

A) Cloud Integration
B) Code Inspection
C) Continuous Infrastructure
D) Continuous Integration

70. Which DevOps practice emphasizes collaboration, automation, and rapid delivery?

A) DevOps Culture
B) Waterfall Model
C) Manual Testing
D) Traditional IT Silos

71. Which Git command creates a new branch and switches to it immediately?

A) git branch -d
B) git switch -c
C) git merge -c
D) git checkout -d

72. What is the main purpose of GitOps?

A) Replace Git with Jenkins
B) Manage employee access
C) Use Git as the source of truth for infrastructure and deployments
D) Store container images

73. Which GitOps tool is commonly associated with Kubernetes continuous delivery?

A) Argo CD
B) Maven
C) SonarQube
D) JMeter

74. What does Infrastructure as Code (IaC) primarily provide?

A) Manual server configuration
B) Physical hardware repair
C) Application debugging
D) Declarative and repeatable infrastructure management

75. Which tool uses HCL as its primary configuration language?

A) Ansible
B) Terraform
C) Jenkins
D) Docker

76. What is Terraform state primarily used for?

A) Storing application logs
B) Building Docker images
C) Tracking managed infrastructure resources
D) Running unit tests

77. Which Terraform command previews infrastructure changes before applying them?

A) terraform plan
B) terraform check
C) terraform preview
D) terraform inspect

78. Which Terraform command applies the proposed infrastructure configuration?

A) terraform deploy
B) terraform run
C) terraform create
D) terraform apply

79. Why is remote Terraform state commonly used in team environments?

A) To remove version control
B) To provide shared and centralized state management
C) To eliminate infrastructure
D) To compile Terraform code

80. What is configuration drift?

A) A Git branch conflict
B) A failed Docker build
C) A difference between the desired and actual infrastructure state
D) A network protocol

81. Which Kubernetes component is responsible for scheduling Pods onto nodes?

A) kube-scheduler
B) kube-proxy
C) CoreDNS
D) etcd

82. What is the primary role of etcd in Kubernetes?

A) Build container images
B) Route external HTTP traffic
C) Execute application code
D) Store Kubernetes cluster state

83. Which Kubernetes object is commonly used to expose a Deployment inside or outside a cluster?

A) ConfigMap
B) Service
C) Secret
D) Namespace

84. Which Kubernetes Service type exposes a service externally using a cloud provider's load balancer?

A) ClusterIP
B) NodePort
C) LoadBalancer
D) ExternalName

85. What is the default Kubernetes Service type?

A) ClusterIP
B) NodePort
C) LoadBalancer
D) ExternalName

86. What does a Kubernetes Deployment primarily manage?

A) DNS records
B) Persistent disks only
C) Network hardware
D) ReplicaSets and application Pods

87. Which Kubernetes feature automatically adjusts the number of Pods based on resource utilization?

A) StatefulSet
B) Horizontal Pod Autoscaler
C) ConfigMap
D) DaemonSet

88. Which Kubernetes workload ensures a Pod runs on every eligible node?

A) Job
B) Deployment
C) DaemonSet
D) ReplicaSet

89. Which Kubernetes workload is designed for applications requiring stable identities and persistent storage?

A) StatefulSet
B) Job
C) CronJob
D) DaemonSet

90. Which Kubernetes resource is used to store non-sensitive configuration data?

A) Secret
B) Volume
C) ServiceAccount
D) ConfigMap

91. What is the recommended Kubernetes object for storing passwords, tokens, and keys?

A) ConfigMap
B) Secret
C) Namespace
D) Service

92. What does a Kubernetes readiness probe determine?

A) Whether a container image exists
B) Whether a node has enough storage
C) Whether a Pod is ready to receive traffic
D) Whether the cluster has an API server

93. What happens when a Kubernetes liveness probe repeatedly fails?

A) The container can be restarted
B) The Deployment is permanently deleted
C) The namespace is removed
D) The cluster is recreated

94. Which command displays running Pods across all Kubernetes namespaces?

A) kubectl pods --all
B) kubectl list pods
C) kubectl get pod --global
D) kubectl get pods --all-namespaces

95. Which Kubernetes command is commonly used to inspect logs from a container?

A) kubectl inspect
B) kubectl logs
C) kubectl trace
D) kubectl output

96. Which Kubernetes command provides detailed information about a specific resource?

A) kubectl details
B) kubectl inspect
C) kubectl describe
D) kubectl explain-all

97. What is Helm primarily used for in Kubernetes?

A) Packaging and managing Kubernetes applications
B) Replacing container runtimes
C) Monitoring CPU temperature
D) Creating Git repositories

98. What is a Helm chart?

A) A Kubernetes node
B) A container runtime
C) A monitoring dashboard
D) A package containing Kubernetes application definitions

99. Which container technology provides OS-level process isolation?

A) Virtual memory only
B) Containers
C) DNS
D) Load balancing

100. Which Dockerfile instruction specifies the base image?

A) START
B) BASE
C) FROM
D) IMAGE

101. Which Docker command builds an image from a Dockerfile?

A) docker build
B) docker create-image
C) docker compile
D) docker package

102. What is a Docker multi-stage build primarily used for?

A) Running multiple Docker daemons
B) Increasing image layers
C) Replacing Kubernetes
D) Creating smaller production images by separating build stages

103. What is the main advantage of using Docker image layers?

A) They eliminate networking
B) They enable layer reuse and caching
C) They replace source control
D) They automatically encrypt applications

104. Which Docker command lists currently running containers?

A) docker images
B) docker show
C) docker ps
D) docker running

105. Which file is commonly used to define multi-container Docker applications?

A) compose.yaml
B) docker.config
C) container.yaml
D) services.docker

106. What is the purpose of a container registry?

A) Store Git branches
B) Manage Kubernetes nodes
C) Run SQL queries
D) Store and distribute container images

107. Which practice helps reduce the security risk of container images?

A) Using larger base images
B) Scanning images for vulnerabilities
C) Running everything as root
D) Disabling image verification

108. Which tool is commonly used to scan container images for vulnerabilities?

A) Maven
B) Git
C) Trivy
D) Gradle

109. What is the principle of least privilege in DevSecOps?

A) Give users and services only the permissions they need
B) Give every service administrator access
C) Disable authentication
D) Store credentials in source code

110. What does shift-left security mean?

A) Moving security teams away from development
B) Testing only after production deployment
C) Removing security checks from CI/CD
D) Integrating security earlier in the software development lifecycle

111. What is a common DevSecOps approach for detecting vulnerable dependencies?

A) Manual server rebooting
B) Software composition analysis
C) Disabling dependency management
D) Removing package managers

112. What is secret management intended to prevent?

A) Faster deployments
B) Container scaling
C) Exposure of credentials and sensitive configuration
D) Automated testing

113. Which tool is commonly used for centralized secrets management?

A) HashiCorp Vault
B) Jenkins
C) Grafana
D) Maven

114. What is SAST used for?

A) Monitoring CPU usage
B) Testing network bandwidth
C) Managing containers
D) Analyzing source code for security vulnerabilities

115. What is DAST designed to analyze?

A) Git history
B) A running application for security vulnerabilities
C) Terraform state only
D) Docker image layers only

116. Which Jenkins feature allows pipelines to be defined as code?

A) Jenkins Dashboard
B) Jenkins Agent
C) Jenkinsfile
D) Jenkins Node

117. In Jenkins, what is an agent?

A) A machine or execution environment that runs pipeline work
B) A Git repository
C) A Docker image registry
D) A monitoring metric

118. Which Jenkins pipeline syntax is commonly used for declarative pipelines?

A) workflow
B) pipeline.yaml
C) declarative.yml
D) pipeline { }

119. What is the main benefit of Jenkins Pipeline as Code?

A) It removes source control
B) It makes CI/CD workflows versionable and reproducible
C) It eliminates testing
D) It replaces containers

120. Which GitHub feature provides CI/CD automation using YAML workflow files?

A) GitHub Pages
B) GitHub Discussions
C) GitHub Actions
D) GitHub Gist

121. Where are GitHub Actions workflow files normally stored?

A) .github/workflows
B) .github/actions-only
C) /actions/config
D) /github/pipelines

122. What is a GitHub Actions runner?

A) A Git branch
B) A Docker registry
C) A GitHub repository
D) A machine that executes workflow jobs

123. What is a matrix strategy in GitHub Actions used for?

A) Encrypting secrets
B) Running jobs across multiple combinations of configurations
C) Creating Git repositories
D) Managing DNS

124. What is a reusable workflow in GitHub Actions?

A) A workflow that cannot be triggered
B) A workflow stored outside GitHub
C) A workflow that can be called by other workflows
D) A workflow that runs only once

125. Which CI/CD platform is natively integrated with GitLab repositories?

A) GitLab CI/CD
B) Docker Hub
C) Grafana
D) Prometheus

126. Which file traditionally defines GitLab CI/CD pipelines?

A) gitlab.pipeline
B) pipeline.git
C) ci.config
D) .gitlab-ci.yml

127. What is a CI/CD artifact?

A) A Git branch
B) A file or package produced during a pipeline
C) A cloud region
D) A network firewall

128. What is a build artifact repository commonly used for?

A) Running Kubernetes control planes
B) Monitoring memory usage
C) Storing versioned build packages and artifacts
D) Creating DNS zones

129. Which practice helps make CI pipelines faster?

A) Caching dependencies and parallelizing independent jobs
B) Running every job sequentially
C) Disabling automated tests
D) Rebuilding unchanged dependencies every time

130. What is pipeline parallelization?

A) Running only one pipeline step
B) Disabling CI
C) Combining all stages into one script
D) Running independent pipeline tasks concurrently

131. What is blue-green deployment?

A) Deploying only to development
B) Maintaining two environments and switching traffic between them
C) Deploying without version control
D) Running two Git repositories

132. What is a canary deployment?

A) A deployment with no monitoring
B) A deployment that always replaces all instances at once
C) A deployment that gradually exposes a new version to a subset of users
D) A database migration strategy only

133. What is a rolling deployment?

A) Gradually replacing instances with a new version
B) Deploying to all users simultaneously
C) Deploying only database changes
D) Disabling health checks

134. What is the main advantage of canary releases?

A) They remove the need for monitoring
B) They guarantee zero bugs
C) They eliminate testing
D) They reduce the blast radius of a faulty release

135. What is a feature flag?

A) A Git commit
B) A mechanism for controlling feature availability without redeploying code
C) A container image
D) A Kubernetes node

136. What is a rollback in a deployment pipeline?

A) Deleting the source repository
B) Increasing server capacity
C) Returning an application to a previous known-good version
D) Removing monitoring

137. What is an immutable infrastructure approach?

A) Replace infrastructure instead of modifying deployed instances in place
B) Manually edit every server
C) Disable infrastructure automation
D) Store passwords in server files

138. What is the primary goal of continuous delivery?

A) Eliminate source control
B) Deploy manually once a year
C) Avoid automated testing
D) Keep software in a releasable state through automated processes

139. What is continuous deployment?

A) Manual release approval for every build
B) Automatically deploying validated changes to production
C) Building code without testing
D) Deploying only during maintenance windows

140. Which metric measures how frequently an organization successfully deploys to production?

A) Lead time for changes
B) Change failure rate
C) Deployment frequency
D) Mean time to restore

141. Which DORA metric measures the time from code committed to code successfully running in production?

A) Lead time for changes
B) Deployment frequency
C) Change failure rate
D) Availability

142. Which DORA metric measures the percentage of deployments that cause a failure requiring remediation?

A) Deployment frequency
B) Lead time
C) Mean time to restore
D) Change failure rate

143. What does MTTR commonly measure in DevOps?

A) Time to write code
B) Time required to restore service after a failure
C) Time to create a Git branch
D) Time to build a container image only

144. What is observability in modern DevOps?

A) Writing more source code
B) Removing application logs
C) Understanding system behavior using telemetry such as logs, metrics, and traces
D) Replacing all monitoring systems

145. Which three telemetry signals are commonly associated with observability?

A) Logs, metrics, and traces
B) Users, servers, and databases
C) Git, Docker, and Maven
D) CPU, RAM, and disks only

146. Which tool is widely used for collecting and querying metrics in cloud-native environments?

A) Jenkins
B) Git
C) Maven
D) Prometheus

147. What is Grafana primarily used for?

A) Building container images
B) Visualizing and exploring telemetry data
C) Managing Git branches
D) Compiling Java applications

148. What is OpenTelemetry designed to provide?

A) A replacement for Kubernetes
B) A container registry
C) Vendor-neutral collection and instrumentation of telemetry
D) A Git hosting service

149. What does distributed tracing help engineers understand?

A) A request's path across multiple services
B) Git branch names
C) Dockerfile syntax
D) Terraform providers only

150. What is an SLI?

A) A deployment tool
B) A security vulnerability
C) A container image
D) A quantitative measure of a service's performance or reliability

151. What is an SLO?

A) A source code repository
B) A target value or range for a service level indicator
C) A container runtime
D) A deployment pipeline

152. What is an SLA?

A) A Kubernetes controller
B) A CI/CD job
C) A formal service commitment between a provider and customer
D) A Docker command

153. What is an error budget?

A) The acceptable amount of unreliability derived from an SLO
B) The cost of a cloud account
C) The number of Git commits allowed
D) The maximum Docker image size

154. What is the purpose of incident management in DevOps?

A) Prevent all deployments
B) Replace source control
C) Remove monitoring
D) Restore normal service and minimize business impact

155. What is a blameless postmortem?

A) A report that hides technical causes
B) An incident review focused on learning and system improvements rather than individual blame
C) A deployment approval document
D) A security scan

156. What is chaos engineering?

A) Randomly deleting production systems
B) Disabling all monitoring
C) Deliberately testing system resilience under controlled failure conditions
D) Replacing CI/CD

157. Which principle is important when performing chaos experiments?

A) Define a hypothesis and limit the blast radius
B) Avoid monitoring
C) Make failures unpredictable without controls
D) Test only after major outages

158. What is the main goal of autoscaling?

A) Disable workloads during peak traffic
B) Remove monitoring
C) Increase manual operations
D) Adjust compute capacity based on demand

159. Which Kubernetes autoscaler changes the number of nodes in a cluster?

A) Horizontal Pod Autoscaler
B) Cluster Autoscaler
C) Vertical Pod Autoscaler only
D) ReplicaSet

160. What does the Kubernetes Vertical Pod Autoscaler primarily adjust?

A) Git branches
B) Number of clusters
C) CPU and memory resource requests and limits for Pods
D) DNS records

161. What is a Kubernetes namespace mainly used for?

A) Logical isolation and organization of resources
B) Building container images
C) Replacing nodes
D) Encrypting Git repositories

162. What is Kubernetes RBAC used for?

A) Scaling Pods
B) Building images
C) Managing container logs
D) Controlling access to Kubernetes resources based on roles

163. What does a Kubernetes ServiceAccount represent?

A) A physical server
B) An identity used by workloads or applications to interact with the API
C) A container registry
D) A storage volume

164. What is a NetworkPolicy in Kubernetes used for?

A) Scheduling Pods
B) Creating container images
C) Controlling network traffic to and from Pods
D) Managing Git branches

165. What is a Kubernetes Ingress commonly used for?

A) Managing external HTTP/HTTPS access to services
B) Storing secrets only
C) Scheduling Pods
D) Building images

166. What is the role of an Ingress Controller?

A) Store Git commits
B) Create Docker images
C) Replace the Kubernetes API server
D) Implement routing rules defined by Ingress resources

167. What is the Kubernetes Gateway API intended to improve compared with traditional Ingress?

A) Source code compilation
B) Expressiveness and extensibility of traffic routing
C) Git authentication
D) Docker image compression

168. What is a persistent volume used for in Kubernetes?

A) Managing Git branches
B) Scheduling Pods
C) Providing persistent storage to workloads
D) Managing DNS only

169. What does a PersistentVolumeClaim represent?

A) A request for storage by a workload
B) A request for a Git repository
C) A Kubernetes node
D) A container image

170. What is a Kubernetes StorageClass used for?

A) Defining CI pipeline stages
B) Managing container logs
C) Managing Git permissions
D) Defining classes of dynamically provisioned storage

171. Which AWS service is commonly used to run managed Kubernetes clusters?

A) S3
B) Amazon EKS
C) CloudFront
D) Route 53

172. Which AWS service is primarily used for object storage?

A) EC2
B) EKS
C) S3
D) VPC

173. Which AWS service provides virtual servers?

A) Amazon EC2
B) Amazon S3
C) Amazon Route 53
D) Amazon CloudFront

174. Which AWS service is commonly used to monitor metrics and logs?

A) IAM
B) S3
C) ECR
D) CloudWatch

175. Which AWS service is commonly used as a container image registry?

A) CloudFormation
B) Amazon ECR
C) CloudFront
D) CloudWatch

176. What is AWS IAM primarily used for?

A) Container orchestration
B) Object storage
C) Managing identities and access permissions
D) DNS caching

177. Which Azure service provides managed Kubernetes?

A) Azure Kubernetes Service
B) Azure Blob Storage
C) Azure DNS
D) Azure Functions

178. Which Azure service is commonly used for DevOps pipelines and repositories?

A) Azure Monitor
B) Azure Storage
C) Azure DNS
D) Azure DevOps

179. Which Google Cloud service provides managed Kubernetes?

A) Cloud Storage
B) Google Kubernetes Engine
C) Cloud DNS
D) Cloud CDN

180. What is a cloud-native application generally designed to take advantage of?

A) Only physical servers
B) Manual deployments
C) Elasticity, automation, containers, and distributed cloud infrastructure
D) Fixed hardware capacity

181. What is a microservices architecture?

A) An application composed of independently deployable services
B) A single executable with no components
C) A physical server architecture
D) A Git branching model

182. What is one major DevOps challenge with microservices?

A) No need for monitoring
B) No deployment automation
C) No network communication
D) Increased operational and observability complexity

183. What is service discovery in a microservices environment?

A) Finding source code files
B) Allowing services to locate and communicate with other services
C) Finding Git commits
D) Searching Dockerfiles

184. What is an API gateway commonly responsible for?

A) Compiling source code
B) Managing Git branches
C) Routing client requests to backend services and applying cross-cutting policies
D) Creating container images

185. What is a service mesh designed to manage?

A) Service-to-service communication in distributed applications
B) Git repositories
C) Container image builds only
D) Database schemas only

186. Which technology is commonly associated with service mesh deployments?

A) Maven
B) Jenkins
C) Terraform
D) Istio

187. What is a sidecar container pattern?

A) A container running outside the cluster
B) A helper container running alongside the main application container
C) A container registry
D) A replacement for a Kubernetes node

188. What is policy as code?

A) Writing application comments
B) Storing policies only in documents
C) Defining and enforcing policies using machine-readable code
D) Removing security automation

189. Which tool is commonly used for policy as code in cloud-native environments?

A) Open Policy Agent
B) Git
C) Docker Compose
D) Maven

190. What is software supply chain security concerned with?

A) Only server hardware
B) Only network bandwidth
C) Only database performance
D) Protecting source code, dependencies, build systems, artifacts, and deployment processes

191. What is an SBOM?

A) A Kubernetes deployment
B) A Software Bill of Materials listing software components and dependencies
C) A cloud firewall
D) A Git branch strategy

192. What is artifact signing used for?

A) Increasing CPU capacity
B) Creating Kubernetes namespaces
C) Verifying the authenticity and integrity of software artifacts
D) Managing Git branches

193. Which tool is commonly associated with signing and verifying container images?

A) Cosign
B) Maven
C) Grafana
D) kubectl

194. What is a zero-trust security model based on?

A) Automatically trusting internal networks
B) Giving users permanent administrator access
C) Disabling authentication for internal services
D) Continuously verifying identities, devices, and access requests

195. What is ephemeral infrastructure?

A) Infrastructure that can never be deleted
B) Temporary infrastructure created and destroyed as needed
C) Physical infrastructure only
D) Infrastructure without automation

196. What is a self-healing system in DevOps?

A) A system requiring manual recovery for every failure
B) A system that disables failed services permanently
C) A system that automatically detects and recovers from certain failures
D) A system without monitoring

197. Which practice best supports reliable DevOps operations?

A) Automating repetitive tasks and continuously validating changes
B) Making production changes manually without review
C) Avoiding observability
D) Disabling automated tests

198. In a production incident, what should a DevOps engineer prioritize first?

A) Writing a new feature
B) Deleting monitoring data
C) Rewriting the entire application
D) Restoring service and reducing customer impact

199. A deployment succeeds, but application latency suddenly increases. What should you investigate first?

A) Delete the deployment immediately without evidence
B) Compare deployment changes with metrics, logs, and traces
C) Disable monitoring
D) Delete the source repository

200. Which combination best represents a modern DevOps approach?

A) Manual deployments, isolated teams, and no monitoring
B) Manual infrastructure, infrequent releases, and siloed operations
C) CI/CD, IaC, containers, observability, security automation, and continuous improvement
D) Source control without automated testing

Connect Development, Automation, and Cloud Operations with DevOps Training Understand how CI/CD, version control, infrastructure automation, containers, monitoring, and cloud practices work together across modern software delivery.

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About the Author

Shashi

Shashi has spent years building and maintaining CI/CD pipelines, working with development teams to reduce friction between writing code and shipping it reliably. He's handled failed deployments and early-morning rollbacks firsthand. He tests containerization and automation tools before recommending them, writing for engineers who need workflows that hold up under production pressure.

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